Problem for week six

(Due to my business laziness, this week is a little long, longer than a month.)

Problem 6: Denote the transpositions in the symmetric group S_n as (i,i+1). Define the length of a permutation \pi as the least number of transpositions that formulate the permutation: \pi. Show that the length of a permutation \pi is the number of “inversions”: the number of pairs $latx i<j$ for which \pi(i)>\pi(j).

Solution to last problem:

Define the rank of a partition \lambda to be r(\lambda)=a(\lambda)-\ell(\lambda), which would be the difference of the length of the first part of \lambda and the number of parts of \lambda. Then the following finishes the proof.

\sum_{n=1}^\infty q^{n(3n-1)/2}(1-q^n)

=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n \atop \lambda \text{ has odd number of parts}}(-1)^{r(\lambda)}

- \sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n\atop \lambda \text{ has even number of parts}}(-1)^{r(\lambda)} )q^n

=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has odd number of parts}\atop \text { the largest part is odd}}1

-\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has odd number of parts}\atop \text{the largest part is odd}}1)q^n

-(\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has even number of parts}\atop \text{the largest part is even}}1

- \sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n;  \lambda \text{ has even number of parts}\atop \text{ the largest part is odd}}1)q^n

=\sum_{n=1}^\infty (\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has odd number of parts}\atop\text { the largest part is odd}}1

+ \sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has even number of parts}\atop \text{ the largest part is odd}}1 )q^n

-(\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has even number of parts}\atop \text{the largest part is even}}1

+\sum_{ \lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n; \lambda \text{ has odd number of parts}\atop \text{the largest part is odd}}1 )q^n

=\sum_{n=1}^\infty(\sum_{\lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n \atop \text{the largest part is odd}}1

-\sum_{\lambda\in \mathcal {D}_n\atop \text{the largest part is even}}1)q^n

=\sum_{n=1}^\infty(P_o(\mathcal {D}_n)-P_e(\mathcal {D}_n))q^n

Explore posts in the same categories: combinatorics, One Problem A Week

Leave a Reply

Fill in your details below or click an icon to log in:

WordPress.com Logo

You are commenting using your WordPress.com account. Log Out / Change )

Twitter picture

You are commenting using your Twitter account. Log Out / Change )

Facebook photo

You are commenting using your Facebook account. Log Out / Change )

Connecting to %s


Follow

Get every new post delivered to your Inbox.